Complete question:
1. You found a new species of garden pea and have decided to repeat Mendel’s experiments. You have obtained two true-breeding pea plants that are tall (T) with yellow pods (g), and short (t) with green pods (G), respectively. Capital letters indicate dominant traits.
a. What is the genotype and phenotype of the F1 generation? (2p)
b. You allowed self-fertilization in F1 generation and obtained F2 generation. Using Punnett square to obtain the phenotypes, genotypes and their respective ratios. (4p)
2. If you obtained 1248 offspring in the F2 generation in Question 1, calculate how many offspring of each phenotypic class you would expect to have. (4p)
3. When you finish questions 1 and 2, under what assumption/hypothesis did you perform your analysis/calculation? Is there an alternative assumption/hypothesis, which may result in a different conclusion? If yes, what is the alternative assumption/hypothesis and what kind of offspring and in what numbers do you expect to obtain? (4p)
4. You only need to answer A or B to get this 6p. Please indicate which question you are answering. In your experiment, you found the following offspring only: Tall green: 626 offspring. Tall yellow: 313 offspring. Short green: 309 offspring.
A: If you stay with your original hypothesis/assumption, test it using chi2 test and analyze the result (whether you want to reject the hypothesis and why).
B: If you believe that the alternative hypothesis fits better with your data, test it using chi2 test and analyze the result (whether you want to accept the hypothesis and why).
Answer:
1) a. 100% of the progeny will be dihybrid, TtGg, exhibiting the phenotype
Tall plants with green pods.
b. F2 Gentotype:
1/16 TTGG2/16 TTGg1/16 TTgg2/16 TtGG4/16 TtGg2/16 Ttgg1/16 ttGG2/16 ttGg1/6 ttggF2 Phenotype:
9/16 Tall plants with green pods (T-G-)3/16 Tall plants with yellow pods (T-gg)3/16 Short plants with green pods (ttG-)1/16 Short plants with yellow pods (ttgg)Phenotypic ratio → 9:3:3:1
2) T-G- → 702 individuals
T-gg → 234 individuals
ttG- → 234 individuals
ttgg → 78 individuals
3)
Null Hypothesis: The population is under Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. The alleles of this population assort independently.Alternative Hypothesis: The population is not in equilibrium. Alleles do not assort independently.4) a. There is enough evidence to reject the null hypothesis, meaning that the difference between the observed number of individuals and the expected ones is statistically significant. The population is not under equilibrium H-W. Alleles do not assort independently.
Explanation:
1) 1st Cross: True-breeding tall (T) with yellow pods (g) pea plant with a short (t) with green pods (G) plant
Tall and Green pods are the dominant traits,Short and yellow pods are recessive traits.Parentals) TTgg x ttGG
Gametes) Tg, Tg, Tg, Tg tG, tG, tG, tG
F1) 100% of the progeny will be dihybrid, TtGg, exhibiting the phenotype
Tall plants with green pods.
2nd Cross: F1 self-fertilization
Parentals) TtGg x TtGg
Gametes) TG, Tg, tG, tg
TG, Tg, tG, tg
Punnett square) TG Tg tG tg
TG TTGG TTGg TtGG TtGg
Tg TTGg TTgg TtGg Ttgg
tG TtGG TtGg ttGG ttGg
tg TtGg Ttgg ttGg ttgg
F2) Gentotype:
1/16 TTGG2/16 TTGg1/16 TTgg2/16 TtGG4/16 TtGg2/16 Ttgg1/16 ttGG2/16 ttGg1/6 ttggPhenotype:
9/16 Tall plants with green pods (T-G-)3/16 Tall plants with yellow pods (T-gg)3/16 Short plants with green pods (ttG-)1/16 Short plants with yellow pods (ttgg)Phenotypic ratio → 9:3:3:1
2) The total number of individuals in the F2 is 1248.
16 ----------------- 1248 individuals --------------- 100% of the progeny
9 T-G- ----------- X = 702 individuals-------------X = 56.25%
3 T-gg ----------- X = 234 individuals ----------- X = 18.75%
3 ttG- ------------- X = 234 individuals ---------- X = 18.75%
1 ttgg ------------- X = 78 individuals ------------ X = 6.25%
3)
Hypothesis: The population is under Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. The alleles of this population assort independently.Alternative Hypothesis: The population is not in equilibrium. Alleles do not assort independently4) F2 composed of:
Tall green: 626 offspring. Tall yellow: 313 offspring. Short green: 309 offspring.Tall/Green Tall/Yellow Short/Green Short/Yellow
Observed 626 313 309 0
Expected 702 234 234 78
(Obs-Exp)²/Exp 8.23 26.7 24 78
X² = Σ(Obs-Exp)²/Exp = 8.23 + 23.7 + 24 + 78 = 136.93 ≅ 137
Freedom degrees = genotypes - number of alleles = 9 - 4 = 5
Significance level, 5% = 0.05
Table value/ Critical value = 11.07
X² = 137
X² > Critica value
137 > 11.07
There is enough evidence to reject the null hypothesis, meaning that the difference between the observed number of individuals and the expected ones is statistically significant. The population is not under equilibrium H-W. Alleles do not assort independently.
What is the characteristic of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system?
A) Stimulates Digestion
B) Dilates the Bronchi
C) Slows the heartrate
D) Converts Glucose to Glycogen
Manure is carried by rainwater from land to a river. This is an example of what
A. Single pollution
B. Multiple pollution
C. Non point source pollution
D. Point source pollution
Answer:
C. Non point source pollution
Explanation:
Non point source pollution occurs when rain and snowmelt pollute rivers, streams, lakes, marshes, and groundwater. Therefore, option (C) is correct.
What is Non point source pollution?A distributed contamination of water or air that does not originate from a single discrete source is referred to as nonpoint source pollution. The presence of this kind of pollution is frequently the result of the accumulation of the effects of smaller amounts of contaminants that have been gathered from a larger area.
Oil, pet waste, pesticides, herbicides, fertilizer, road salt, bacteria, silt, and any other contaminant that ends up on the ground naturally or as a result of human activity are all examples of nonpoint source pollution. Nonpoint source pollution arises from diffuse sources.
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The activity of the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex is also controlled by phosphorylation. Pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase (PDH kinase) catalyzes the phosphorylation of a specific Ser residue on the E1 subunit of the enzyme, rendering it inactive. Pyruvate dehydrogenase phosphatase (PDH phosphatase) reverses the inhibition by catalyzing the removal of this phosphate group. The PDH kinase is highly regulated and its activity is influenced by various cellular metabolites. Indicate whether the following would activate or inhibit PDH kinase:
Inhibit or activate PDK?
NAD+ activate
NADH inhibit
coenzyme A activate
acetyl-CoA inhibit
ADP inhibit
Did I answer these correctly?
Answer:
Increase in [NAD+] inhibits Pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase (PDH kinase)
Increase in [NADH] activates Pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase (PDH kinase)
Coenzyme A inhibits Pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase (PDH kinase)
Acetyl-co A activates Pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase (PDH kinase)
ADP inhibits Pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase (PDH kinase)
Explanation:
Pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase, PDK is an enzyme which acts to inhibit the activity of the enzyme pyruvate dehydrogenase by phosphorylating it using ATP. It mechanism of action is by catalyzing the phosphorylation of a specific Ser residue on the E1 subunit of the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, rendering it inactive. By inhibiting the activity of the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, PDK will decrease the oxidation of pyruvate to acpcetyl-coA and CO₂ in the mitochondria and increase the conversion of pyruvate to lactate in the cytosol.
Since pyruvate dehydrogenase complex is activated by either an increase in the concentration of one or more of ADP, NAD+ or CoA-SH, its inhibitor pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase is inhibited by ADP, NAD+, CoA-SH and pyruvate. However, PDK is activated by increase in the concentration of ATP, NADH and acetyl-CoA.
Therefore, the correct answers are:
Increase in [NAD+] inhibits Pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase (PDH kinase)
Increase in [NADH] activates Pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase (PDH kinase)
Coenzyme A inhibits Pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase (PDH kinase)
Acetyl-co A activates Pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase (PDH kinase)
ADP inhibits Pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase (PDH kinase)
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in complete sentences compare in depth neutrophils, eosinophils and the basophils.
Compare their functions
Compare their structures
Compare how they look when they are stained
Compare their counts
Answer: Neutrophils have a two-lobed or bilobed nucleus, while eosinophils have bean-shaped nucleus and basophils have a multi-lobed nucleus. The lifespan of neutrophils is 5-90 hours, whereas eosinophils lifespan is 8-12 hours and that of basophils have a life span of 60-70 hours. functions- All the granulocytes present in white blood cells play their role in fighting against pathogens and in destroying them, where neutrophils vital role is in engulfing the foreign or toxic particles through phagocytosis; Eosinophils are the first one in triggering the inflammatory response during allergic disorders; and Basophils prevents the immediate blood clotting, as it contains heparin (anticoagulant) in the body. structures- Neutrophils have a two-lobed or bilobed nucleus, while eosinophils have bean-shaped nucleus and basophils have a multi-lobed nucleus. ... Neutrophils make up to 40-75% of the total white blood cells, while eosinophils mark their presence up to 1-6% and basophils are up to 0.5-1% of the whole white blood cells. stained- Neutrophils:Neutrophils are stained in natural pink color. Eosinophils: Eosinophils are stained in brick red in acidic stains. Basophils: Basophils are stained in dark blue in basic stains. counts- Neutrophils are one of the primary types of white blood cells, that evokes the immune response against any foreign particle attack in the body. Eosinophils are another type of white blood cells, that helps in fighting against disease and allergies. Basophils are such white blood cells that help to diagnose the specific health problems like autoimmune disease or other blood disorder, etc. in the body.
Explanation:
How does a single fertilized egg cell develop into all the different cells of your body? Use cell division and differentiation in your answer.
Answer:
Once an egg is fertilized by a sperm, a zygote is formed. The zygote divides into multiple cells in a process known as cleavage, triggering the beginning of embryonic differentiation. Cells in these three layers will give rise to different parts of the organism. The endoderm eventually becomes the gut.
Explanation:
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A zygote is formed when an egg is fertilized. The zygote divides into multiple cells in a process known as cleavage, triggering the beginning of embryonic differentiation.
What is Differentiation?This is the process in which cells acquire different structure and function from one another to form distinct cell types.
When a zygote is formed, cell division takes place which helps to trigger differentiation of cells.
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50. The flow chart below shows how a metamorphic rock can change into a
sedimentary rock. Which of these processes would be the correct label to
replace the question mark?
Metamorphic rock
Sediment
Sedimentary rock
Erosion
?
A) Cooling
B) Deposition
C) Melting
D) weathering
Answer:
The process that would be the correct label to replace the question mark in this question is:
B) Deposition
Explanation:
Deposition takes place after erosion of sedimentary rock. At this stage, the eroded sedimentary rocks build up under high pressure heat, wind, ice, water, and other natural forces to originate the rock formation cycle once again. Naturally, after deposition, the igneous rocks, which have then layered up sedimentary rocks to become metamorphic rocks.
What does photosynthesis produce?
Answer: cells use carbon dioxide and energy from the Sun to make sugar molecules and oxygen
Explanation:
i hope this help
Consider the following scenario:
A drought hits the habitat of a semi-aquatic bird population. All ponds dry up, and fish populations decline. There are two groups of birds in the population that differ in leg length and diet. Long-legged birds eat fish, while short-legged birds eat insects. The drought has little effect on insect populations.
What is the main selective pressure in this scenario?
(1 point)
drought
leg length
insect population
fish population
There are two varieties in a population of squirrels: short tails and long tails. Long-tailed squirrels are better at jumping and balancing in trees. Scientists observe that over the span of 100 years, the proportion of the population with long tails increases from 10% to 60%. Which statement is most likely? (1 point)
The proportion of long-tailed squirrels may have increased due to increased food availability.
The proportion of short-tailed squirrels may have decreased due to decreased food availability.
The proportion of short-tailed squirrels may have decreased due to an increase in trees.
The proportion of long-tailed squirrels may have increased due to a decrease in trees.
1. What is the main selective pressure in this scenario?
fish population.
2. According to the question, option "A" is correct The proportion of long-tailed squirrels may have increased due to increased food availability.
What is selective pressure?In evolutionary theory, the effect on survival of a species of the sum of all elements, physical and behavioural, inherent and environmental especially as an inherited characteristic may marginally affect survival under the influence of these elements.
Thus, the option "D" and "A" is correct.
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Select all the correct answers.
When people run quickly, they can sweat profusely. Their muscles undergo movement, and the loss of energy takes place. Based on this description, in which two ways is energy conserved when people run?
Heat energy is released from the body to the surroundings.
Heat energy is taken from the surroundings to the body.
Chemical energy is converted to mechanical energy that’s used for muscle movements.
Radiant energy is converted to mechanical energy that’s used for muscle movements.
Heat energy is converted to mechanical energy that’s used for muscle movements.
Answer: Chemical energy is converted to mechanical energy that’s used for muscle movements.
Heat energy is converted to mechanical energy that’s used for muscle movements.
Explanation:
According to the I law of thermodynamics, energy can neither be created cannot be destroyed but it can only change its form. In the given situation, the energy can only be conserved when it is not lost to the environment. The chemical energy is produced in the body in the form of ATP which is converted into mechanical energy to allow the movement of the muscles during running. So, chemical energy is converted into mechanical energy by this way. The heat energy when directly converted into mechanical energy to induce the movement of muscles the energy will remain conserved and will not lost to the environment.
Answer:
Chemical energy is converted to mechanical energy that’s used for muscle movements.
Heat energy is converted to mechanical energy that’s used for muscle movements.
Explanation:
can you live without a spleen
Answer:
Yes
Explanation:
Although the spleen is an important part of the Immune system, you can survive without it, because the liver can also have the same functions of a spleen. Although the liver can take over these functions it cant prevent all the bacteria that a spleen can prevent.
Chemical Reactions in Life Quick Check
What is photosynthesis? (1 point)
o a chemical reaction plants use to release energy from food
O a chemical reaction plants use to create water
a chemical reaction plants use to create new atoms
o
a chemical reaction plants use to create food
a chemical reaction plants use to create food
Why is a shell considered to be biotic?
A shell is considered as biotic (living) because it is a hard, rigid covering of many animals such as snail, sepia, pila, turtles, sea urchins. A shell is protective outer layer of these soft bodied animals.
Received information is called a transduced signal because: _________.
a. it is then converted into other chemical forms.
b. it is then converted into other electrical forms.
c. this process often has many steps of information conversion.
d. it is then converted into other chemicals during metabolism.
e. many different molecules form a signaling cascade.
Answer:
The correct answer is - e. many different molecules form a signaling cascade.
Explanation:
Signal transduction is the number of events that take place inside the body of a human from the external atmosphere to transmitting a chemical or physical signal through a number of molecular events of signaling cascade.
The transmission of the particular chemical or physical signal is caused a sequence of phosphorylation events inside the cell it involves specific protein receptors and different types of molecules.
Products that can be broken down by biological processes are considered
Answer:
The substance which can be easily decomposed by natural decomposers is called as biodegradable wastes such as humans and animal excreta, plant wastes.
Explanation:
because am cool
Answer:
it. can be biodegradable hope this helps
Denitrifying bacteria _____.
are part of the carbon-oxygen cycle
absorb oxygen from the atmosphere
release nitrogen into the atmosphere
break down nitrogen into ammonia
If the amino acids glycine, alanine and valine were combined in one molecule, what would the molecule be called?
Answer:
A tripeptide
Explanation:
Alanine (Ala), Glycine (Gly) and Valine (Val) are amino acids, i.e., organic molecules that contain at least an amino (–NH2) and one carboxyl (–COOH) functional group. The amino acids held together by peptide bonds, which are formed by a carboxyl group of one amino acid and an amino group of another one, in order to form a peptide. Thus, a tripeptide is a peptide composed of three amino acids joined by two internal (and sometimes three) peptide bonds. In the case above described, the tripeptide formed by the binding of Glycine, Alanine, and Valine can be abbreviated as Gly-Ala-Val (i.e., in this order).
All of the following are actions one may participate in if they are seeking group therapy except __________.
A. describing problems
B. sharing experiences
C. providing emotional support
D. setting goals for the group
Answer:
D
Explanation:
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The immune system is the body's defense against infectious organisms and other invaders. Your immune system works by recognizing the difference between your body's cells and alien cells, allowing it to destroy anything that could be potentially harmful. Active and passive immunity play an important role in keeping you healthy.
What is the difference between passive and active immunity? (SC.912. L.14.52)
A. Naturally acquired active immunity occurs when the person is exposed to a live pathogen, develops the disease, and becomes immune while naturally acquired passive immunity occurs during pregnancy, in which certain antibodies are passed from the maternal into the fetal bloodstream
B. Both passive and active immunity are interchangeable
C. Passive and active immunity are both 1st line of defenses
D. Passive immunity occurs when a person is exposed to a virus and active immunity occurs when the immunity is passed on through breast feeding
Answer:
The answer would be A
Guys, please take a look at this. I know that the answer is NOT A.
Answer:
C
Explanation:
There are 4 zeros, which fits the "at least three" criteria.
X plus a number means the root is negative on the graph, so all roots are negative.
(x+3) occurs twice meaning it has a multiplicity of 2.
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what do mature red blood cells lack, and as a result cannot produce protein or reproduce?
- mitochondria
-cell membrane
-sodium channels
-nuclei
Answer:
4th answer nuclei
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Look at the Density of Substances table. Which two substances from the table are buoyant in pure water?
A. silver and lead
B. lead and diamond
C. gasoline and ethyl alcohol
D. silver and diamond
Answer:
Silver and lead
Explanation: hope that helps
Look at the H-R diagram. Which area of the diagram represents the white dwarfs?
Answer: Area z
Explanation:
1
The diagram below represents a food chain in a garden.
Rose
Greenfly
Ladybird
Blackbird
A food chain in a garden
1.1
Name the organism above that represents the following:
(a) Herbivore
(b) Producer
(1)
(1)
1.2
A rose bush contains 1 000 kJ/m2 /year of energy and only 10% of this
energy is passed on at each trophic level of the food chain. How much
energy will be passed on to the blackbird? Show ALL your calculations.
(4)
1.3
If all the greenflies in this garden were removed, explain what would
happen to the populations of the following:
(a) Rose plants
(b) Ladybirds
(C) Blackbirds
(2)
(2)
(2)
(12)
Answer:
The correct answer is -
1.1 A. herbivore - greenfly
b. producer - rose
1.2. 1 kJ/m2/year
1.3 rose plants will increase, ladybirds will decrease, blackbirds will decrease.
Explanation:
In this food chain,
Rose >>Greenfly >>Ladybird >>Blackbird
Rose plants are the producers as they generate their food and energy and does not depend on other organisms where as greenfly are the primary consumer or herbivore as they depend on the rose plant for their food and energy only, however, ladybird as secondary consumer and blackbird as tertiary consumer depend on greenfly and ladybird respectively.
If rose plants have 1000 kJ/m2 /year of energy and as it is known that only 10% moves to the next tropic level then blackbird would have:
rose = 1000
greenfly = 1000*10/100= 100 kJ
ladybird = 100*10/100 = 10kJ
blackbird = 10*10/100 = 1 kJ
If greenfly removes from here the rose plant will increase as these depends and eat rose plants and lady bird will decrease as these are the primary source of food for lady bird and if ladybird decrease blackbird also decrease.
Is this active or passive transport?
Answer: Passive transport
Explanation: If the direction is from left to right, then it is passive. Passive transport is like unconscious, like osmosis. If I open my lunchbox and I have a peanut butter sandwich, the peanut butter smell (molecules) will naturally spread around and so someone standing next to you will smell it, and someone 3 seats away from you will smell it. Note that it is EVENLY spreading out, so after a while the person sitting 3 seats away from you will smell the peanut butter with a similar intensity as the person sitting next to you. Active transport is doing something forcefully. If the direction was right to left, then it would be active transport. :D
If an organism has a diploid number of 54, how many chromosomes will be in each of its gametes?
a. 54
b. 52
c. 27
d. 104
e. 108
There will be 27 chromosomes in each of its gametes.
• Meiosis is also called reductional division, in the process s-ex cells, that is, sperm and egg are produced, and each cell has the half number of chromosomes than its parent cells.
• In the given case, the organism is diploid with 54 chromosomes, that is, 2n = 54.
• Here n is the haploid number of chromosomes, in the given case, n = 27, that is, the haploid number of chromosomes is 27.
• Therefore, the sperm and egg cells have 27 number of chromosomes each.
Thus, the correct answer is option c, that is, 27.
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common leaves dichotomous key lab report
Answer:
.
Explanation:
If individuals from box 1 and box 4 were crossed, what would be the genotypes of the
offspring?
F. all Bb
G. Bb and bb
H. BB and bb
I. BB and Bb
Is hair a good source of criminal evidence, explain your answer?
Answer:
yes
Explanation:
Hair contains DNA of the criminal. DNA is unqiue to everyone, no one is ever simialr in DNA to eachother. So if a hair sample is found, then testing it would provide a great piece of evidence.
Answer:
yes because if the body is unditfied they can always take a hair sample and run it but if it is the killers they run it to see if it has dna strands and then if they find something they will get the suspect in and take a piece of their hair to see if it is the perfect match
Explanation:
A scientist isolates a disease-causing particle. Which of the following properties would indicate that the particle is a virus and not a bacterium?